John 1:1
Jul 10, 2012 14:14:56 GMT -5
Post by Admin on Jul 10, 2012 14:14:56 GMT -5
# QUESTION: "God" or "a god" (John 1: 1)
www.strictlygenteel.co.uk/truthfree/truthfree3.html
Many people object to the NWT rendering of John chapter 1 verse 1 claiming that is should read "and the word was God" however, since the verse itself says that the word was "with" God then, that same word could not be "God".
Further the greek word for "God" is certainly different from the greek word "god" θεός . Many translators use such words as “a god,” “divine” or “godlike” because the Greek word θεός (the‧os′) is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. This is an anarthrous the‧os′.
God
In John 1: 1 the first mention of "God" was originally is designated here by the Greek expression ὁ θεός, that is, the‧os′ preceded by the definite article ho. This is an articular the‧os′. Careful translators recognize that the articular construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality.
The Word
In the second part of John 1: 1 (speaking about The Word) we have a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb, this points to a quality about someone. John’s statement that the Word or Logos was “a god” or “divine” or “godlike” does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same as God himself.
In the Greek text there are many cases of a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb, such as in Mr 6:49; 11:32; Joh 4:19; 6:70; 8:44; 9:17; 10:1, 13, 33; 12:6. In these places translators insert the indefinite article “a” before the predicate noun in order to bring out the quality or characteristic of the subject. Since the indefinite article is inserted before the predicate noun in such texts, with equal justification the indefinite article “a” is inserted before the anarthrous θεός in the predicate of John 1:1 to make it read “a god.”
Refering to The Word as "a god" is both linguistically and biblically acceptable.
Jesus said, Is there not a saying in your law, [...], You are gods? If he said they were gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Writings may not be broken). -- John 10: 34, 35
www.witnessoftruth.com/articles/trinity/john-1-1-word-was-god.html
Further ....
Audio text
www.youtube.com/watch?v=YegtsGGqY0U
Tuturial (2 parts)
www.youtube.com/watch?v=yr4exUjKmHk
pastorrussell.blogspot.com/2009_02_01_archive.html
www.witnessoftruth.com/articles/trinity/john-1-1-word-was-god.html
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www.strictlygenteel.co.uk/truthfree/truthfree3.html
Many people object to the NWT rendering of John chapter 1 verse 1 claiming that is should read "and the word was God" however, since the verse itself says that the word was "with" God then, that same word could not be "God".
Further the greek word for "God" is certainly different from the greek word "god" θεός . Many translators use such words as “a god,” “divine” or “godlike” because the Greek word θεός (the‧os′) is a singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. This is an anarthrous the‧os′.
God
In John 1: 1 the first mention of "God" was originally is designated here by the Greek expression ὁ θεός, that is, the‧os′ preceded by the definite article ho. This is an articular the‧os′. Careful translators recognize that the articular construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality.
The Word
In the second part of John 1: 1 (speaking about The Word) we have a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb, this points to a quality about someone. John’s statement that the Word or Logos was “a god” or “divine” or “godlike” does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same as God himself.
In the Greek text there are many cases of a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb, such as in Mr 6:49; 11:32; Joh 4:19; 6:70; 8:44; 9:17; 10:1, 13, 33; 12:6. In these places translators insert the indefinite article “a” before the predicate noun in order to bring out the quality or characteristic of the subject. Since the indefinite article is inserted before the predicate noun in such texts, with equal justification the indefinite article “a” is inserted before the anarthrous θεός in the predicate of John 1:1 to make it read “a god.”
Refering to The Word as "a god" is both linguistically and biblically acceptable.
Jesus said, Is there not a saying in your law, [...], You are gods? If he said they were gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Writings may not be broken). -- John 10: 34, 35
www.witnessoftruth.com/articles/trinity/john-1-1-word-was-god.html
Further ....
Audio text
www.youtube.com/watch?v=YegtsGGqY0U
Tuturial (2 parts)
www.youtube.com/watch?v=yr4exUjKmHk
pastorrussell.blogspot.com/2009_02_01_archive.html
www.witnessoftruth.com/articles/trinity/john-1-1-word-was-god.html
<< Do Jehovah's Witnesses believe in the divinity of Christ?
www.getphpbb.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?p=469&mforum=jw#469
< ====QUESTION ........................ LEARN MORE (scroll down) .................. QUESTION ====>
<< back to "trnity proof texts"
<< INDEX Jesus
<< JW Forum list of INDEX (FAQ)