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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:25:35 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:25:47 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:26:03 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:28:46 GMT -5
Question: Why does the bible say God "caused"/made Eve's childbirth pains to increase if he was not directly responsible?
This expression is not being used in the absolute. In the bible God is sometimes spoken of as "causing" or "making" something happen when in fact He simply allows it.
Scripturally God is Almighty and nothing happens that he cannot stop should he so wish, so in an relative - not an absolute - sense, whatever happens he "makes" in that he doesn't step in to stop it. This does not imply He (God) was responsible for it happening or that what happened was according to his will or desire.
The example of Adam and Eve illustrates this. Since God had prohibited them from eating of the tree of knowledge and warned them of the consequences if they did, logically we can assume He didn't want them to disobey him nor did he force them to. Thus A&E sinned of their own free will and the suffering that entailed was caused by their actions. God neither wanted nor forced them to disobey. God did however, allow the drama to play out and in that relative sense he "made" or "caused" them to eventually see the consequences of their actions.
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:34:21 GMT -5
Oo
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:34:31 GMT -5
Vv
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:34:40 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:34:52 GMT -5
Km
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:38:46 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:45:11 GMT -5
"For soon I will lie down in the dust, And you will look for me, but I will be gone." - 1 Kings 7:21b
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Post by Admin on Sept 16, 2017 9:45:44 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Dec 19, 2018 21:17:46 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Dec 19, 2018 21:18:27 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Dec 19, 2018 21:19:05 GMT -5
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