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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:30:06 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:31:09 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:31:24 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:31:35 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:32:33 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:32:48 GMT -5
QUESTION: Why does the "me" of John 14:14 appear in the Jehovah's Witness WBTS Greek Interlinear but not in their bible translation? In 1969 Jehovah's Witnesses, published a Greek-English word for word interlinear. based on the text of Westcott & Hort's Greek New Testament. This was a critical Greek text based primarily on Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus (where the "me" does appear). www.qbible.com/greek-new-testament/john/14.htmlAlong side the publication has the rendition of the New World Translation which, although it does extensively reference W&H is NOT based exclusively on their text but references a number of other Greek manuscrips as well. The New World Translation Committee, for reasons stated above decided, contrary to the Wescott & Hort, not to include the " ask me" in its main text of John 14:14*. Why did the NWT choose NOT to include the "me" in John 14:1* despite the fact it is included in the Wescott and Hort's Greek Text?debatingchristianity.com/forum/viewtopic.php?p=864055#864055Further reading (Search For Bible Truths SFBT) searchforbibletruths.blogspot.fr/2012/07/john-1414-and-new-world-translation.htmlCONTEXT Even if by some happenstance Jesus did say on this occasion "ask me," this would have to be viewed in the context of his speaking to his immediate disciples who were with him at the time, while he was still alive on earth. "Ask me" would be logical in the immediate context of Jesus' speaking with his disciples while he was still with them. Even the first Christian martyr Stephen implored Jesus as if he were still present. (Acts 7:59) But it is not unusual that Jesus as a living presence would still resonate with Stephen, since Jesus' ministry and resurrection were recent events for Stephen. However, beyond that context, Jesus directs Christians to pray to "Our Father" (Matthew 6:9), and the apostle Paul said "I bend my knees to the Father." (Ephesians 3:14). There is no other verse in the New Testament where Jesus requests or directs that prayer as an act of worship should be addressed to him. If the "me" reading is original, it would be an anomaly that is out of character with the whole New Testament. "Ask me...in my name" is tautological, a needless repetition that is also ambiguous. Further, in the context of the Gospel of John as a whole, "ask me...in my name" is strange doctrine, if it is taken to refer to prayer. Verse 14 fosterheologicalreflections.blogspot.fr/2012/05/frederic-louis-godet-argues-that-me-in.html
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:34:32 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:34:59 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:35:31 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:35:46 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Oct 30, 2014 7:43:47 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Feb 12, 2015 3:19:34 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Feb 12, 2015 3:19:45 GMT -5
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Post by Admin on Feb 12, 2015 3:20:05 GMT -5
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